the owner of example.com contacted me to say that he has the trademark for example.com and therefore I am infringing or Typosquatting his domain.
I see it as two different domains, does anyone have any solid info on this?
thankyou
Fred
However, it can't be helped there are some parties who believe having a trademark gives them absolute exclusive use to the terms in question, especially if they have deep pockets to enforce that belief.
Lets say the other guy trademarked 'oranges.com' and you have 'myoranges.com'.
I don't think he would have much of a case. Oranges is just too generic.
On the other hand, if he trademarked 'jonesbearings.com' and you come up with
'myjonesbearings.com' after that, he could have a very solid case.
All disclaimers apply, I'm no lawyer, just my personal impressions. -Larry
[tess2.uspto.gov...]
I called here [uspto.gov...] and it turns that I was in breach of trademark, because we are in the same industry. If I were in a different industry I would be ok.
I think its ridiculous that there isnt a system in place to stop this from happening at the point of registration. There really should be some warning on the Godaddy screen!
Fred
It's up to you to do your homework, not godaddy.
I think its ridiculous that there isnt a system in place to stop this from happening at the point of registration. There really should be some warning on the Godaddy screen!
If you're saying registrars should screen out if the name you're looking up can potentially infringe a trademark, unfortunately there's a 1999 ruling potentially saying registrars aren't in the biz of policing such.
Besides, every registrar's legal fine prints indicate they're not responsible for doing that. It's the customer's burden to determine that.
