Leosghost
msg:4088038 | 7:45 pm on Feb 26, 2010 (gmt 0) |
Depends if they are "voting shares"" or "non voting shares" ..Normally investors would get "non voting" ..if you get your deal right :)
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piatkow
msg:4088436 | 4:14 pm on Feb 27, 2010 (gmt 0) |
On the face of it you have effectively sold your business. There are ways around this but the law will vary according to what jurisdiction you are in. You need to take local professional advice.
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httpwebwitch
msg:4088482 | 7:06 pm on Feb 27, 2010 (gmt 0) |
I agree with piatkow - this is the stage where you need to get a lawyer involved.
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murmy
msg:4088879 | 1:45 pm on Feb 28, 2010 (gmt 0) |
Well let us say that the formation is:
Investor1: 40%
Investor2: 40%
ME: 20%
What if we all have voting shares? Does this mean that if ME and Investor2 agree to do something, it gets carried even if Investor1 disagrees?
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Leosghost
msg:4088897 | 3:23 pm on Feb 28, 2010 (gmt 0) |
yes
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Leosghost
msg:4088898 | 3:33 pm on Feb 28, 2010 (gmt 0) |
however it would be much simpler to operate in the real world if you just sold them both equal sized blocks of non voting shares ..
You really do need to talk a lawyer specialised in company formations in your jurisdiction though as previously suggested ..it sounds like you are anticipating specific friction ..before you begin ..which is not a good basis for any joint undertaking ..
BTW..If the investors are family ..then dont ..( loans maybe ..even so best avoided..voting stock ..no )..now go see a lawyer .
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