Lord_Majestic - 1:57 am on Sep 13, 2008 (gmt 0)

If practically everyone is using Google, then doesn't the definition of practically everyone include the wealthy and the poor?

Good question. I think less affluent might search less (maybe they don't have computer at all), I don't think though we are talking about the wealthy and the rich here - middle class plays the key role.

But let's assume here Google's customers are the same as Yahoo's in terms of PPC value, in this case Google will hold 70% market share - this is a very high share, certainly very close to monopoly - I'd say even anything above 40% is pretty influential but 70% is huge - I can't think of any real world business that would avoid regulation in this case - the only nearest example I can think of is Microsoft of the 90s, oddly enough both of those cases are in IT industry.