TheMadScientist - 2:41 am on Mar 10, 2010 (gmt 0)

Alright, I'll take you up on it... I've heard different versions of what happens if there is prior art, so: If there is prior art, is the patent 'NULL' meaning anyone can use the idea, or is there something else that happens, EG some sort of ownership transference to the actual inventor?

EDITED: Because I keep re-reading and trying to type what I mean specifically in some semblance of English, and also because I can. lol.