metaman - 7:00 pm on Jul 31, 2000 (gmt 0)

Thanks for clearing that up Seth. I did read that document but its amazing how much more understanding I got with a second read.

I came across another thing that's quite puzzling.

Look at the Inverse Document Frequency part of the TF*IDF equation.

log (Number of documents/Number of documents containing keyword)

Assume the keyword is on every page (you would think this was a good thing). When you do the division you get 1. Take the log of 1 and you get zero. Any Term Frequency you multiply by 0 you come up with zero. Maybe they have some kind of catch for when this happens?